Hi,
I'm sorry, but where on earth does this rule about "properly" configured hosts exist (as in, a host is properly configured if and only if the hostname has a resolving DNS entry)? As far as I can see, no such rule exists for IPv4. Why does it exist for IPv6?
As a few examples where hostnames may not work:
This issue is pretty bad: we now have to consider disabling IPv6 for all sites because IPv4 stops working for a large number of dual-stack sites.
I concede that the existing setup probably looked like the correct approach when it was written: at that point, how sites would deploy IPv6 was a bit more theoretical.
Here's my logic for using interface-based semantics:
XrdCl
) redirections are based on hostnames, which are re-resolved to addresses by the client. In the case of a IPv4-only client identified as dual-stack, they will still resolve only IPv4 addresses of the data server and connect over IPv4.In fact, using the same logic, we probably should identify a client as dual-stack if there is a public IPv6 address and a private IPv4-only (given the prevalence of NATs for IPv4 and the scarcity of NATs for IPv6).
Brian
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